Recibimos este texto (si algún lector, judío o noájida, lo desea traducir al castellano para que lo publiquemos, se lo agradecemos mucho, pues nos parece que vale la pena el esfuerzo):

My Story

This is it so far:

I am a former Jewish believer in X-tianity wishing to prevent others from making the same mistake.

I was involved in Christianity fairly actively for around a year and a half while in college in the early ’80’s. During this period I attended church up to three times a week, campus fellowship twice a week, and occasional additional fellowships or other activities. (A fellowship is a casual get-together for bible study, group prayer, and singing songs of worship.) I even led the singing with my guitar sometimes in my campus group. Many hours were spent reading the bible and Christian books on my own, or in theological conversation with my closest friends, all of whom were strong Christians.

Church was something I looked forward to and enjoyed, unlike the dry, lifeless conservative synagogue I had grown up in. I attended fundamentalist, “bible-believing” churches where the atmosphere was joyous, there was a lot of singing of happy songs, and the people were warm. In fact, there were two churches that I alternated between, because I liked them both so much. I listened attentively to the sermons, where I was always eager to be “zapped” with new insights into “the word.” I always had my bible with me so I could follow along. I even took notes. At home, the usual choice of music was Christian albums, tapes, and radio stations. My aspiration for the future was to go to bible school and then into missionary work.

I originally came to believe in Jesus by becoming convinced that the “New Testament” was the fulfillment – as it says it is – of the Torah (“Old Testament” in Christian terms), i.e., Judaism. My ignorance of the Torah had left me vulnerable to this claim.

Conversely, what ultimately convinced me that Christianity was false was close scrutiny of the “New Testament” – together with the “Old” – for the first time, upon which I discovered the true nature of this “fulfillment.” Contradictions and discrepancies between the two books began to be revealed which Christians had never pointed out to me (although they had been careful to point out all of the supposed likenesses). Contradictions and discrepancies which were hardly in keeping with the Christian claim that both books are the absolute word of G-d, inerrant and in full accord with each other. There were even many self-contradictions within the New Testament itself, further complicating the matter.

It was an extremely painful process, but by being shown these discrepancies and contradictions, and examining the original “Old Testament” prophecies in their context, I came to realize that it was only gross distortion of the Hebrew scriptures and extremely forced interpretations that had ever made the two books appear reconcilable with each other and formed a religion deifying a human, nullifying the law of Moses, and splitting up G-d. Christianity had been formulated by the taking of verses of Torah out of context, the mistranslation of words here and there, and the use of warped logic to cover up the tracks. I had been fooled.

The fortunate result of this devastating experience was that I came to be introduced to Judaism in its genuine form for the first time, that is, traditional observance of the law of Moses as it has been carried out by our ancestors since the time of Sinai, the precious birthright of every Jew that has been all but lost on its way down to the present generation. As it has been for so many others, it had been denied me my whole life, misrepresented by modern assimilated Jewish society. This Judaism I had never know before contained the answers to my questions, plus more depth and spirituality than I had imagined possible, and had been lying in my own back yard.

By learning the spiritual significance behind many of what used to appear to be meaningless rituals and customs, by observing others whose lives are centered around Torah, and by taking on the observance of some of the commandments myself, I quickly came to learn that the law of Moses which Christianity purports to dissolve and declares a curse is actually a rich and beautiful heritage, and the only answer for a Jew looking for a relationship with G-d and meaning in life. I felt my Jewishness being actualized for the first time, and that I had finally come home.





My challenge: If you think I am wrong, then answer these questions:
... WITHOUT taking anything out of context, mistranslating, or imposing a pre-conceived notion. (All chapter and verse numbers are according to Christian bibles.)


Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 "commit iniquity," if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?

Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, "I have sinned against Thee," if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?

Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his "folly" and his "wrongs" if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?

Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn't this the strangest, right when he's on the cross??????

Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that "everyone will die for his own iniquity" - immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else's iniquity? Isn't that a rather strange way for the "tutor to lead us to Christ?"

When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn't verse 34 happened yet?

Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won't be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)

Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)

Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)

Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if "neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything," according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul's or God's?

Why does "forever" have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4, Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142)

How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the "Holy Spirit" be of the seed of David?

How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)

How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)

How could both Matthew's and Luke's genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???

Why don't the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?

Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)

Why does Hebrews 8.9 lie about what God said in Jer. 31.32?

Why does Hebrews 10.5 lie about what God said in Psalm 40.6?

Why does 2 Corinthians 3 lie about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?

Why does John 19.37 lie about what God said in Zech 12.10?

Why does Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 lie about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?

Why does Romans 10.6-8 lie about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???

Why does Romans 11:26-27 lie about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?

Why does Matt. 12.21 lie about what God said in Isaiah 42.4?

Why does Matt. 1.12 lie about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?

Why does Matt. 2.6 lie about what God said in Micah 5.2?

Why does Luke 4:18-19 lie about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?

In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?

Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God's son?

Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, "And he shall be called a Nazarene," quoted in Matthew 2.23?

Why are the holy and inspired men of the New Testament so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?

Why doesn't Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he's God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)

Why does Jesus lie in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?

Why does Jesus change God's law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 - declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if "I did not come to abolish the law," and "whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?" (Math. 5.17,19)

Why do most Christian translators lie about what God said in Hosea 14.2, and change His words, "take away all iniquity... that we may present our lips as bulls" (demonstrating that prayer substitutes for sacrifice) to "... the fruit of our lips?"

Why do Christians never mention verses like Hosea 14.2 or 1 Kings 8:44-52 or 2 Sam 12:13 or Lev. 5:11-13 or Ps. 32.5 or Isaiah 6.6-7 which demonstrate that one does not need a blood sacrifice to have their sins forgiven, or verses like Proverbs 21.3 or Psalms 40.6 or Hosea 6.6 or Psalms 69:30-31 or 1 Sam. 15.22 which say clearly that God actually PREFERS other methods of atonement to blood sacrifice, or Jeremiah 7:22-23 which goes so far as to say that God NEVER EVEN COMMANDED US ABOUT SACRIFICES???

Why are there numerous stories in the torah of people who sinned, and were forgiven through prayer and repentance - WITHOUT A SACRIFICE, such as David in 2 Sam 12:13, or the city of Nineveh in Jonah - and not a single story, ever, of someone who sinned and gave a sacrifice in order to be forgiven?

How can Jesus be the Passover lamb for the gentiles, especially the uncircumcised, if outsiders were forbidden to partake of it? (Ex. 12:43,45,48)

Why is the New Testament so concerned about the laws of the paschal lamb when it comes to the 2nd half of Ex. 12.46 (see Jn. 19.36), but not at all concerned with these laws when it comes to Ex. 12: 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,44, the first half of 46, or 48?

What good is Jesus as a sin sacrifice to the intentional sinner, since (with one exception, Lev. 6.2,3) the sin sacrifices were only for the unintentional sinner? (Lev. 4: 2,13,22,27; 5:15,18)

Why did God, in Jer. 31.16, tell Rachel that her children would return, if He was referring to the dead children in Matthew 2.16? Were they going to come back to life?

Why are the nations putting their hands on their mouth in Micah 7.16, much like in Isaiah 52.15? What is it that they're seeing and being ashamed of?

Why did the church put an unnatural chapter break between Isaiah 52.15 and 53.1?

Why did the Christian translators remove the two plural references to the servant in Isaiah 53.8 and 9 and replace them with a singular form?

Why does the servant in Isaiah 53.10 have physical children ("zera"/seed) if it refers to Jesus?

If "zera" really means spiritual children in Is. 53, why do all Christians agree it means physical offspring in every other place in the bible that it is used to refer to people?

If "zera"/seed really means spiritual children, which ONE of the world's Christians is the true child of Jesus, since according to Paul in Gal. 3.16, "seed" refers to only one person?

Why are there many clear prophecies which state that Israel is despised and afflicted, but none which say this about the messiah?

Why is the automatic Christian response to the problems of Isaiah 53 ALWAYS to quote the rabbis they otherwise despise and mock and whose writings they don't believe in, that Jesus berated and Paul called "men who turn away from the truth" (Titus 1.14) ???

Why did the disciples not understand what Jesus was talking about in Luke 18:31-34 and Mark 9:32, if it was always common knowledge among the Jews that the messiah was to suffer, die, and rise from the dead?

Why did Jesus make predictions that didn't come true, if that's a sure sign of a false prophet? (Math. 16:38, Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27, Deut. 18:20-22)

Why does God the Father know something Jesus doesn't know (Mark 13.32) if Jesus IS the Everlasting Father, and the Mighty God, according to Isaiah 9.6?

Why do Christians translate the word "moshiach" correctly as "an anointed one" every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Daniel 9?

Why do Christians translate the word "ca'ari" correctly as "like a lion" every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm 22.17?

Why do Christians translate the words "y'mei olom" correctly as "days of old" every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Micah 5.2?

Why do Christians translate the word "bar" correctly to "cleanliness" or "purity" every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm 2.12? Why is it that 5 verses earlier King David knew the correct word for "son," but not in verse 12?

Why don't Christians translate "ha'almah" as "virgin" in Proverbs 30.19, if that's what it means? (What the four "ways" in vs. 19 have in common is that they leave no trace, as evidenced by vs. 20 that follows.)

Why did the Septuagint authors use "parthenos" in Genesis to describe Dina who had just been raped, if it means virgin according to messianic authorities?

If Isaiah 7.14 refers to the virgin birth of Jesus, via "dual prophecy" (since it obviously can't refer to him via the context), then whose was the other virgin birth that occurred at the time of the prophecy?

* * Why are there numerous prophecies about gentiles bowing and apologizing to the Jews in the last days, and admitting they (the gentiles) have been wrong, and not a single prophecy the other way around - of the Jews apologizing to the gentiles - if it is indeed the Jews who are wrong? (see my messianic prophecies list) * *

* * Why are we commanded NOWHERE in the Jewish scriptures to believe in the messiah when he comes, if our salvation depends on it? * *

* * Why do all the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled deal only with the PERSON of the messiah, which the Torah barely mentions, and have nothing to with the ACCOMPLISHMENTS of the messiah, which the Torah is very specific about? * *

* * * Why is it that all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things that are of no practical advantage to anyone, and do nothing to improve the quality of anyone's life, while all of the prophecies that he did NOT yet fulfill are all things that will be of tremendous benefit to every individual on the planet, and all of mankind as a whole? (For example, how does a virgin birth that happened 2000 years ago, or Jesus' being thirsty and being offered vinegar, or being born in Bethlehem, or being killed with a robber, or riding on a donkey, etc... help me out at all? How do any of these "fulfillments" solve a single problem in my life, or anyone's? Yet, on the other hand, when there is world peace, and all the evil people are gone, and all the sick are healed, etc... now THERE are some messianic prophecies I can use!!! ) * * *

* * * Why is it that all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things that CANNOT BE PROVEN, while all of the prophecies that Jesus did NOT yet fulfill, on the other hand, are all things that COULD NOT BE DENIED IF HE HAD fulfilled them - even just ONE of them??? * * *

* * * * Why is it that the ONLY way to fit Jesus into the torah's messianic prophecies is through the use of extreme force? Why is one or more of the following methods ALWAYS required? 1) taking verses out of context, 2) mistranslating, 3) placing a 2,000 year gap (at least) in the middle of a verse - totally unjustified by the context - i.e. sweeping any failure of Jesus to fulfill the scriptures under the rug of the 2nd coming, or 4) making verses up? Why can't the torah ever just ONCE mention Jesus clearly, if it's so important that we believe in him? * * * *

ARE ALL OF THE ABOVE FACTS JUST TREMENDOUS, AMAZING, UNBELIEVABLE COINCIDENCES???????

If God changed his mind about so many crucial things He said in the Torah, as demonstrated above, and now wants us to believe in Jesus, why didn't he have the decency to come down to ALL of us, and endorse Jesus in person to make it clear to us, as he came down to all 3 million of us on Mt. Sinai to endorse Moses, to make sure we would believe in the Torah forever? (Ex. 19:9.11,17, Ex. 24.17)

Why does God break one of His own commandments, "You shall not place a stumbling block before the blind" (Lev. 19.14), since according to 2 Cor. 3.14 and 4.4 I am blind, and according to Rom. 9.32, 1 Peter 2.8, and 1 Cor 1.23, the above challenges are all part of "a stumbling stone?"

Why does God trick us, and present us with such tremendous difficulties as the above questions, and then throw us into hell for rejecting an apparent false god, who's really not false, if "God our Savior desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth?" (1 Tim. 2.4)

WHY IS THE CHRISTIAN GOD SUCH A SADIST??? AND WHY DO CHRISTIANS EXPECT JEWS TO WANT TO EMBRACE HIM???




This list may be copied and passed around, as long as credit is given to leeannerhymes@aol.com, who gives at least half of the credit to Rabbi Tovia Singer :)



I am open to dialogue with any believer in Jesus, Jewish or not, who sincerely wants the truth, no matter what it is, and who can discuss these discrepancies rationally and not in circles, and THOSE PEOPLE ONLY.

NOT IN CIRCLES means it is understood that ONLY THE TORAH, WHICH CAME FIRST, IS THE UNDENIABLE WORD OF GOD, and THE NEW TESTAMENT, which came later and claims to fulfill the Torah, IS THE DOCUMENT IN QUESTION AND BEARS THE FULL BURDEN OF PROOF. Therefore, no attempt to explain away a discrepancy can begin with a pre-conceived Christian notion or with a verse in the New Testament. Instead, all discussion will begin with Torah, and Torah only, and continue in a straight, chronologic, rational line, moving TOWARD the New Testament, which will be examined IN THE LIGHT OF THE TORAH ONLY. All examinations of verses will also include their full context and correct translation.

To anyone not willing to follow these simple guidelines of rationality and logic, who can only attempt to prove the validity of the New Testament by quoting the New Testament or a pre-conceived notion, or by constantly changing the subject to avoid the challenge presented, or by resorting to personal attack, I ask respectfully that you please do not waste my time.

Write to me at leeannesmailbox@aol.com. Leeannerhymes will be blocked.